Why would Master Moshe leave out any mention of female ejaculation after giving so much detail regarding the male discharge of semen, and the female menstrual discharge? If it were unclean as the other two clearly are, would it not be accounted for with equal detail?
If this is a problem with translation, can an instructor cite a source of scripture (perhaps in the Zohar or a non-Hebrew source) that would indicate this?
If this is a problem with translation, can an instructor cite a source of scripture (perhaps in the Zohar or a non-Hebrew source) that would indicate this?